Not yet answered Flag question A 60-year-old woman presents to the clinic to discuss the management of her type 2 diabetes mellitus. She is dissatisfied with her recent HbA1c value. She has been taking metformin monotherapy at the maximal dose for the past year. Central obesity is noted. Laboratory studies show HBA1c value of 7.6. Which of the following is the most appropriate add-on therapy to supplement metformin for this patient? a. DPP-4 inhibitor b. Basal insulin c. Thiazolidinedione d. Sulfonylurea e. Glufagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist Clear my choice
[Answered]: Not yet answered Flag question A 60-year-old woman…
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